Preparing for the HESI 225 RN Pharmacology Exam requires a focused review of key drug concepts. Ulosca.com – a leading nursing exam prep site – offers comprehensive HESI study resources and practice questions to build confidence.
The HESI Pharmacology exam tests critical pharmacological knowledge, including drug classes, mechanisms of action, dosage calculations, patient education, and adverse effects.
Nursing students should master these areas through guided study and example questions. Below we outline major topic areas and sample multiple-choice questions (MCQs) modeled on the HESI format to aid your preparation.
- Drug classification & mechanism of action: Identify classes of drugs (e.g. beta-blockers, diuretics) and their primary effects.
- Dosage calculation & therapeutic effects: Be able to compute safe dosages and understand intended outcomes.
- Patient education & safe administration: Learn proper timing, administration routes, and counseling (e.g. avoiding drug interactions).
- Recognition of adverse effects: Know common side effects and how to monitor or intervene when they occur.
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Sample Pharmacology MCQs
Medication Administration and Safety
Question 1: A patient has a scheduled fentanyl transdermal patch due for replacement. The nurse notes the old patch is still intact on the patient’s back and the patient reports no pain. What should the nurse do?
A. Give an oral pain pill before applying the new patch.
B. Remove the old patch and apply a new one to a different site. (Correct)
C. Apply a second patch over the first for extra pain control.
D. Remove the patch and call the provider before proceeding.
Correct Answer: B. Remove the old patch and apply a new one to a different site.
Rationale: Fentanyl patches must be changed on schedule to maintain consistent analgesia. The old patch should be removed before applying a new one to prevent overdose.
Option B is correct: once the old patch is removed, place the new patch on clean, non-irritated skin at a different site. Option A is incorrect because the patient currently has no pain and the patch still delivers medication; an oral analgesic is unnecessary and does not address patch replacement.
Option C is wrong: leaving two patches in place can cause toxic overdose. Option D delays care: removing the old patch and deferring action is not needed unless the patient’s condition has changed significantly.
Drug Classifications and Actions
Question 2: Which of the following medications is classified as a beta‑adrenergic antagonist (beta‑blocker)?
A. Lisinopril
B. Metoprolol (Correct)
C. Furosemide
D. Atorvastatin
Correct Answer: B. Metoprolol.
Rationale: Metoprolol is a cardioselective beta‑blocker that slows heart rate and reduces cardiac workload.
Option B is correct: the Cleveland Clinic notes metoprolol is “the most commonly prescribed beta-blocker”.
Option A (lisinopril) is an ACE inhibitor, not a beta-blocker.
Option C (furosemide) is a loop diuretic. Option D (atorvastatin) is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (a statin). Each of A, C, and D belongs to a different class, so only Metoprolol fits the beta-blocker classification.
Question 3: A patient with asthma is prescribed a bronchodilator to relieve acute symptoms. Which class of medication does this represent?
A. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
B. Beta₂-adrenergic agonist (Correct)
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
Correct Answer: B. Beta₂-adrenergic agonist.
Rationale: Bronchodilators relieve asthma symptoms by relaxing airway smooth muscle. The primary bronchodilators for asthma are beta₂-agonists.
Option B is correct: short-acting beta₂-agonists (e.g. albuterol) quickly open airways. Option A (ACE inhibitors) and C (calcium channel blockers) affect blood pressure, not airway tone.
Option D (statins) lower cholesterol and have no role in bronchodilation. Thus, only beta-agonists are indicated for acute asthma relief.
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Side Effects and Adverse Reactions
Question 4: A client taking a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) should be monitored for which common adverse effect?
A. Dry mouth
B. Hypertension
C. Weight gain
D. Gastrointestinal bleeding (Correct)
Correct Answer: D. Gastrointestinal bleeding.
Rationale: NSAIDs commonly irritate the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. The Cleveland Clinic notes that GI symptoms (heartburn, stomach pain, nausea) are the most frequent NSAID side effects. Chronic NSAID use increases the risk of gastric ulcers or GI bleeding.
Option D is correct: GI bleeding is a well‑recognized risk. Options A (dry mouth) and C (weight gain) are not typical NSAID side effects.
Option B (hypertension) can occur over time with NSAIDs, but the more immediate concern is GI bleed. Therefore, patients should be taught to watch for signs like black stools or severe stomach pain.
Question 5: A patient with cystitis is prescribed phenazopyridine. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
A. Provides analgesia for bladder irritation (Correct)
B. Treats the causative bacteria
C. Relaxes smooth muscles of the bladder
D. Prevents infection after sexual intercourse
Correct Answer: A. Provides analgesia for bladder irritation.
Rationale: Phenazopyridine is a urinary tract analgesic, not an antibiotic. Option A is correct: it relieves pain, burning, and discomfort from irritated bladder mucosa in cystitis. Option B is incorrect: phenazopyridine does not kill bacteria or clear infection. Option C is incorrect: while it relieves symptoms, it does not have a direct antispasmodic effect on bladder muscles. Option D is not indicated; phenazopyridine is not for use specifically after intercourse. Thus the correct answer focuses on analgesic symptom relief.
Question 6: A medication known to be hepatotoxic is prescribed. Which organ should the nurse monitor most closely for toxicity?
A. Kidneys
B. Heart
C. Liver (Correct)
D. Lungs
Correct Answer: C. Liver.
Rationale: “Hepatotoxic” literally means toxic to the liver. Option C is correct: such drugs can cause liver injury, so liver function tests (AST, ALT) should be monitored. Options A (kidneys), B (heart), and D (lungs) are incorrect targets. Patients on hepatotoxic drugs (e.g. some anticonvulsants, antibiotics) require vigilance for jaundice, abdominal pain, and elevated liver enzymes
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Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics
Question 7: Which statement best defines pharmacodynamics?
A. The processes of absorption and elimination of a drug
B. How the body breaks down and clears a drug
C. The effects of a drug on the body and its mechanism of action (Correct)
D. The calculation of an appropriate drug dosage
Correct Answer: C. The effects of a drug on the body and its mechanism of action.
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics refers to what the drug does to the body. It encompasses the drug’s effects and how it interacts with receptors med.libretexts.org. Option C is correct: as Libre Texts explains, pharmacodynamics “refers to the effects of drugs in the body and the mechanism of their action” med.libretexts.org. Options A and B describe pharmacokinetics (absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion). Option D (dosage calculation) is neither kinetics nor dynamics.
Question 8: A drug has a half-life of 4 hours. Approximately what percentage of the original dose remains in the body after 8 hours?
A. 12.5%
B. 25% (Correct)
C. 50%
D. 75%
Correct Answer: B. 25%.
Rationale: After one half-life, 50% of a drug remains; after two half-lives, 25% remains. Eight hours is two half-lives (2 × 4 hours). Drug.com provides this example: for a half-life of 60 minutes, 120 minutes later 25% remains.
By analogy, after 8 hours (two half-lives), about 75% is eliminated and 25% remains. Thus option B is correct. Options A (12.5%) and D (75%) reflect three or fewer half-lives incorrectly.
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Patient Education and Safety
Question 9: A client is starting tetracycline therapy. Which instruction should the nurse give regarding medication administration?
A. “Take the pill with a glass of milk.”
B. “Take the medication on an empty stomach and avoid dairy products.” (Correct)
C. “Sunlight will not affect this medication.”
D. “You do not need contraception while on this medication.”
Correct Answer: B. “Take the medication on an empty stomach and avoid dairy products.
Rationale: Tetracycline absorption is significantly reduced by dairy and antacids containing calcium or magnesium.
Option B is correct: it should be taken on an empty stomach (1 hour before or 2 hours after meals) with a full glass of water, and avoiding milk/cheese/yogurt that bind the drug. Option A is wrong: taking with milk greatly decreases absorption.
Option C is incorrect: tetracyclines cause photosensitivity, so patients should avoid excess sun.
Option D is dangerous: tetracycline can reduce effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so alternative contraception is advised. The key teaching point is to avoid dairy and antacids to ensure proper absorption.
Each practice question above mirrors the style of HESI 225 RN Pharmacology items, with an emphasis on clear wording and rationales. Detailed explanations help you understand why the correct answer is best and why distractors are incorrect.
Use these examples to guide your study: focus on U.S. nursing standards, and consider each drug’s class, action, side effects, and patient teaching when preparing for the HESI exam. Ulosca.com provides additional practice tests and content review to reinforce these concepts for nursing students.
Conclusion
Success on the HESI 225 RN Pharmacology Exam requires not only memorizing drug names and classifications but truly understanding how medications work, how to administer them safely, and how to educate patients effectively.
The practice questions and rationales provided here are designed to reinforce that critical thinking approach and mirror the rigor of actual HESI exam content.
At Ulosca.com, we are committed to helping nursing students like you excel in all areas of exam preparation. Our expertly designed HESI prep resources, detailed practice tests, and evidence-based study guides provide the foundation you need to pass your pharmacology exam with confidence.
Keep studying consistently, review rationales carefully, and trust in your preparation. With the right tools and mindset, you’ll be ready to succeed.