Are you preparing to take the Challenge LPN Exam and feeling a mix of excitement and nervousness? You’re not alone! Thousands of aspiring Licensed Practical Nurses face this important milestone each year on their journey toward a rewarding healthcare career. The good news is that with the right preparation strategy and practice materials, you can approach this exam with confidence.
At Ulosca, we understand the challenges you’re facing and have created this comprehensive guide to help you succeed. We’ve compiled sample questions, expert tips, and reliable strategies that have helped countless nursing students ace their exams. Let’s dive into some practice questions to get you comfortable with the exam format and content!
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Challenge LPN Exam Free Sample Questions & Answers
Sample Question 1
A client who has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is prescribed an oral iron supplement. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include when teaching this client about taking this medication?
A) Take the medication with milk to prevent stomach upset
B) Take the medication with vitamin C-rich foods or drinks
C) Take the medication at bedtime only
D) Take the medication on an empty stomach
Answer: B) Take the medication with vitamin C-rich foods or drinks
Rationale: Vitamin C enhances iron absorption in the digestive tract. Taking iron supplements with foods or drinks rich in vitamin C (such as orange juice) increases the bioavailability of iron. Milk and other dairy products actually inhibit iron absorption.
While taking iron on an empty stomach may increase absorption, it often causes gastrointestinal upset, reducing compliance. There’s no therapeutic advantage to taking iron only at bedtime.
Sample Question 2
A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube. Before administering tube feeding, which action is most important for the nurse to take?
A) Check tube placement
B) Position client in high Fowler’s position
C) Check for bowel sounds
D) Flush the tube with water
Answer: A) Check tube placement
Rationale: Checking tube placement is the most critical safety measure before administering any substance through a nasogastric tube. This prevents accidental administration into the lungs, which could cause aspiration pneumonia.
While positioning the client appropriately (semi-Fowler’s or high Fowler’s), checking bowel sounds, and flushing the tube are all important, verifying proper tube placement takes priority to ensure patient safety.
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Sample Question 3
The nurse is monitoring a client receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following symptoms, if observed during the first 15 minutes of the transfusion, would indicate a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A) Urticaria and itching
B) Fever and chills
C) Chest pain and shortness of breath
D) Anxiety and restlessness
Answer: B) Fever and chills
Rationale: Fever and chills are often the first signs of a hemolytic transfusion reaction, which is a serious and potentially life-threatening complication. These symptoms typically appear within the first 15 minutes of starting the transfusion.
Urticaria (hives) and itching are more common with allergic reactions. While chest pain, shortness of breath, anxiety, and restlessness can occur with transfusion reactions, fever and chills are the earliest and most common indicators of hemolysis.
Sample Question 4
A nurse is administering medication to a client with Parkinson’s disease. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority when giving levodopa (L-dopa)?
A) Administer the medication with meals
B) Administer the medication at the same time each day
C) Monitor the client for orthostatic hypotension
D) Inform the client that urine may turn dark
Answer: B) Administer the medication at the same time each day
Rationale: Consistency in timing of levodopa administration is crucial for maintaining therapeutic blood levels and managing Parkinson’s disease symptoms effectively. Fluctuations in drug levels can worsen symptoms and quality of life.
While monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is important, as is informing the client about urine discoloration, neither takes priority over consistent timing. Levodopa is actually better absorbed when taken on an empty stomach, not with meals.
Sample Question 5
A client diagnosed with myasthenia gravis has increasing muscle weakness. Which assessment finding would indicate myasthenic crisis rather than cholinergic crisis?
A) Increased salivation
B) Constricted pupils
C) Increased muscle weakness after administering edrophonium (Tensilon)
D) Increased muscle weakness that improves with rest
Answer: C) Increased muscle weakness after administering edrophonium (Tensilon)
Rationale: Myasthenic crisis and cholinergic crisis can appear similar with muscle weakness, but they’re distinguished by response to edrophonium (Tensilon). In myasthenic crisis, the weakness worsens after Tensilon administration, while it would improve in the cholinergic crisis.
Increased salivation and constricted pupils are symptoms of cholinergic crisis, not myasthenic crisis. In myasthenia gravis, weakness typically worsens with activity and improves with rest, so this isn’t a distinguishing factor between the two crisis types.
Sample Question 6
The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL
B) Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute
C) Pain rated as 4 on a scale of 0-10
D) Serum amylase level of 300 U/L
Answer: B) Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute indicates tachypnea and requires immediate intervention as it could signal respiratory distress, possibly from pleural effusion or acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), which can be complications of acute pancreatitis.
The blood glucose level is only slightly elevated. Pain rated as 4 indicates moderate pain that should be addressed but isn’t immediately life-threatening. An elevated serum amylase is expected in pancreatitis and doesn’t require immediate intervention.
Sample Question 7
A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a total hip replacement. Which client position should be avoided?
A) Lying flat in bed
B) Side-lying on the unoperated side with a pillow between the legs
C) Sitting with the hip flexed more than 90 degrees
D) Standing with weight equally distributed on both feet
Answer: C) Sitting with the hip flexed more than 90 degrees
Rationale: After a total hip replacement, the client should avoid hip flexion beyond 90 degrees to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis. Lying flat in bed and side-lying on the unoperated side with a pillow between the legs are acceptable positions. Standing with weight equally distributed is encouraged during rehabilitation to promote healing and restore normal gait.
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Sample Question 8
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A) “I should avoid eating large amounts of leafy green vegetables.”
B) “I will need regular blood tests to monitor my clotting time.”
C) “I can take aspirin for a headache if needed.”
D) “I should inform my dentist about taking this medication.”
Answer: C) “I can take aspirin for a headache if needed.”
Rationale: This statement indicates a need for further teaching because aspirin has antiplatelet properties that, when combined with warfarin, significantly increase the risk of bleeding. The client should avoid aspirin and other NSAIDs while on warfarin.
The other statements demonstrate correct understanding: limiting consumption of vitamin K-rich foods (like leafy greens) that can counteract warfarin, recognizing the need for regular INR monitoring, and informing other healthcare providers about being on anticoagulant therapy.
Sample Question 9
A nurse is assessing a client with a new colostomy. Which finding would be considered normal in the immediate postoperative period?
A) Absence of stool for 72 hours
B) Bright red bleeding around the stoma
C) Dusky blue discoloration of the stoma
D) Edema of the stoma
Answer: D) Edema of the stoma
Rationale: Edema of the stoma is normal in the immediate postoperative period due to surgical manipulation and will gradually decrease over the first few weeks. Absence of stool for 72 hours could indicate an obstruction and needs assessment.
Bright red bleeding around the stoma may indicate trauma or inadequate hemostasis. A dusky blue discoloration suggests compromised blood supply that requires immediate intervention to prevent stoma necrosis.
Sample Question 10
A client with diabetes insipidus has a nursing diagnosis of “Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume.” Which assessment finding would indicate that this problem is developing?
A) Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg, pulse 110 beats/minute
B) Blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL
C) Urine specific gravity of 1.025
D) Bilateral crackles in the lungs
Answer: A) Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg, pulse 110 beats/minute
Rationale: Hypotension and tachycardia are classic signs of deficient fluid volume, which is a risk in diabetes insipidus due to excessive urine output. An elevated blood glucose level is unrelated to diabetes insipidus (which is not the same as diabetes mellitus).
A urine specific gravity of 1.025 is concentrated, while in untreated diabetes insipidus, the urine would be very dilute (typically below 1.005). Bilateral crackles suggest fluid overload, not deficiency.
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Challenge LPN Exam Final Word
Congratulations on making it through these practice questions! Remember that consistent study and regular practice are key to success on the Challenge LPN Exam. Don’t be discouraged if you didn’t get all the answers right—use these misses as opportunities to identify areas where you need more focus. The journey to becoming an LPN is challenging but incredibly rewarding.
At Ulosca, we’re committed to supporting your nursing career aspirations every step of the way. Our comprehensive practice materials and supportive learning environment are designed to help you gain confidence and master the content you need to succeed. Keep practicing, stay positive, and remember why you chose this meaningful career path. Your dedication to helping others through nursing is admirable, and we’re here to help you achieve your goals!