Are you gearing up for the ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024? Whether you’re a nursing student or a professional brushing up on your skills, this exam is a key milestone in your journey. It’s your chance to showcase your pharmacology knowledge and prove you’re ready to tackle real-world challenges.
At Ulosca.com, we know how important it is to have the right tools and resources to succeed. That’s why we’ve put together this guide to help you prepare with confidence. From practice questions to helpful tips, we’re here to make your study sessions productive and stress-free.
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2024 ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam Questions & Answers
Here are some sample questions to help you sharpen your skills and ace the exam:
Question 1:
A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?
Answer: 22 gtt/min
Explanation: To calculate the manual IV infusion rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), use the formula: Infusion rate (gtt/min) = (Total volume to infuse × Drop factor) ÷ Infusion time in minutes. Here, the total volume is 100 mL, the drop factor is 10 gtt/mL, and the infusion time is 45 minutes.
Plugging in the numbers: (100 mL×10 gtt/mL)÷45 min=22.2 gtt/min, which is rounded to 22 gtt/min.
Adjusting the manual IV tubing to deliver 22 gtt/min ensures the vancomycin is infused over the prescribed 45 minutes, maintaining therapeutic levels while minimizing the risk of adverse effects. Accurate calculations are vital for patient safety and effective treatment.
Question 2:
A nurse is completing discharge teaching for a client who has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the instructions?
A. “I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before I apply the patch.”
B. “I will rotate the application sites weekly.”
C. “I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.”
D. “I will place the new patch on the site of the old patch.”
Answer: C. “I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.”
Explanation: Applying the patch to hairless skin ensures better adhesion and absorption. Rotating sites is also important, but weekly rotation is too infrequent.
Question 3:
A nurse reviewing a client’s medical record notes a new prescription for verifying the trough level of the client’s medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Obtain a blood specimen immediately prior to administering the next dose of medication.
B. Verify that the client has been taking the medication for 24 hr before obtaining a blood specimen.
C. Ask the client to provide a urine specimen after the next dose of medication.
D. Administer the medication, and obtain a blood specimen 30 min later.
Answer: A. Obtain a blood specimen immediately prior to administering the next dose of medication.
Explanation: Trough levels are the lowest drug concentration and must be measured immediately before the next dose. This ensures the medication stays within the therapeutic range, avoiding toxicity or subtherapeutic effects. Proper timing guarantees accurate results and safe dosing.
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Question 4:
A staff educator is reviewing medication dosages and factors that influence medication metabolism with a group of nurses at an in-service presentation. Which of the following factors should the educator include as a reason to administer lower medication dosages? (Select all that apply.)
A. Increased renal secretion
B. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes
C. Liver failure
D. Peripheral vascular disease
E. Concurrent use of medication the same pathway metabolizes
Answer:
C. Liver failure
E. Concurrent use of medication the same pathway metabolizes
Explanation: Liver failure reduces the metabolism of medications, increasing their effects. Concurrent use of medications metabolized by the same pathway can lead to competition, slowing metabolism and requiring dosage adjustments.
Question 5:
A nurse is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
Answer: 200 mL/hr
Explanation: To determine the IV infusion rate, you must divide the total volume to be infused by the infusion time in hours. In this case, the total volume is 100 mL, and the infusion time is 30 minutes, which is equivalent to 0.5 hours.
Using the formula: Infusion rate (mL/hr) = Total volume (mL) ÷ Infusion time (hr), the calculation is 100 mL ÷ 0.5 hr = 200 mL/hr. Setting the IV pump to 200 mL/hr ensures the medication is delivered over the prescribed 30 minutes accurately and safely, avoiding both under-dosing and overdosing.
Question 6:
A nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin 20 mg/kg/day PO to divide equally every 12 hr to a preschooler who weighs 44 lb. The amount available is amoxicillin suspension 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
Answer: 4 mL
Explanation: First, convert the preschooler’s weight from pounds to kilograms: 44 lb÷2.2=20 kg. Calculate the total daily dose of amoxicillin: 20 mg×20 kg=400 mg/day. Divide this by 2 to find the dose every 12 hours: 400÷2=200 mg.
Finally, use the concentration of the suspension to determine the volume per dose: (200 mg×5 mL)÷250 mg=4 mL. The nurse should administer 4 mL per dose.
Question 7:
A nurse is assessing a client’s IV infusion site. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of phlebitis? (Select all that apply.)
A. Pallor
B. Dampness
C. Erythema
D. Coolness
E. Pain
Answer:
C. Erythema, E. Pain
Explanation: Phlebitis is characterized by redness (erythema) and pain at the infusion site, often accompanied by warmth and swelling.
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ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam: Sample Questions & Answers
Question 1:
A nurse is preparing to administer heparin 15,000 units subcutaneously every 12 hours. The amount available is heparin injection 20,000 units/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
A. 0.5 mL
B. 0.6 mL
C. 0.8 mL
D. 1.0 mL
Answer: C. 0.8 mL
Explanation: To calculate the dose, divide the prescribed dose by the available concentration: 15,000 units÷20,000 units/mL=0.75 mL. Rounded to the nearest tenth, this becomes 0.8 mL.
Question 2:
A client with a digoxin level of 2.4 ng/mL has a heart rate of 39 bpm. The healthcare provider prescribes atropine sulfate. Which of the following best describes the intended action of atropine for this client?
A. To reduce peristalsis and urinary bladder tone
B. To stimulate the SA node and sympathetic fibers to increase the rate
C. To accelerate the heart rate by interfering with vagal impulses
D. To dry oral and tracheobronchial secretions
Answer: C. To accelerate the heart rate by interfering with vagal impulses
Rationale: Atropine blocks vagal stimulation, increasing heart rate. It is used in cases of bradycardia to restore adequate cardiac output.
Question 3:
A nurse is preparing to administer nifedipine to a client diagnosed with preterm labor. The client asks why this medication has been prescribed. Which of the following statements by the nurse is correct?
A. To lower your blood pressure
B. To promote development of your baby’s lungs
C. To decrease the intensity of your pain
D. To relax the muscles of your uterus
Answer: D. To relax the muscles of your uterus
Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, relaxes smooth muscle, including the uterus, to delay preterm labor.
Question 4:
A nurse is teaching a client about the adverse effects of fluoxetine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
A. “You may have a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication.”
B. “You should take this medication at bedtime to help promote sleep.”
C. “You will have fewer urinary adverse effects if you urinate just before taking this medication.”
D. “You’ll need to wear sunglasses when outdoors due to the light sensitivity caused by this medication.”
Answer: A. “You may have a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication.”
Rationale: Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is known to cause sexual dysfunction as a common adverse effect. This can manifest as a decreased libido, difficulty achieving orgasm, or other intimacy challenges. It’s important for clients to be aware of this potential side effect and discuss concerns with their healthcare provider for appropriate guidance.
Question 5:
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV vancomycin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a possible adverse effect?
A. Hypertension
B. Red man syndrome
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: B. Red man syndrome
Rationale: Red man syndrome occurs when vancomycin is infused too quickly, triggering histamine release. Symptoms include flushing, rash, itching, and hypotension. Slowing the infusion rate can prevent this reaction and ensure safe administration.
Question 6:
A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: A. One
Rationale: Medications with long half-lives remain at therapeutic levels for extended periods. Phenobarbital’s long half-life allows for once-daily dosing to maintain steady-state levels.
Question 7:
A nurse is assessing a client’s IV infusion site. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of infiltration?
A. Pallor
B. Dampness
C. Erythema
D. Coolness
Answer: D. Coolness
Rationale: Infiltration occurs when IV fluid leaks into surrounding tissue, causing coolness, swelling, and pallor at the site.
Question 8:
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Swallow the tablet whole with water.
B. Take the medication 1 hour before meals.
C. Place the tablet under your tongue and let it dissolve.
D. Chew the tablet before swallowing.
Answer: C. Place the tablet under your tongue and let it dissolve.
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin bypasses the digestive system and is absorbed directly through mucous membranes for rapid action. This method quickly relieves chest pain during angina. Proper placement under the tongue is key for effectiveness.
>>>Check out ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam <<<
ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam Insights: Wrapping Up
Preparing for the ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024 doesn’t have to feel overwhelming. With the right resources and a clear plan, you can tackle it with confidence. Practice questions, like the ones above, are a great way to test your knowledge and identify areas for improvement.
Remember, at Ulosca, we’re here to be your study companion. From guiding you through tricky topics to offering helpful practice questions, we’re dedicated to helping you achieve your goals. Trust yourself—you’ve got everything it takes to ace this exam!