ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2021

Are you gearing up for the ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2021? Whether you’re a seasoned nurse or a student preparing for your big day, this guide is here to help you ace the exam with confidence. We’ve compiled essential questions, answers, and explanations to ensure you’re ready for anything that comes your way.

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2021 ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam Questions & Answers

Here are some key questions from the 2021 exam, complete with answers and explanations:

Question 1:

A nurse is reviewing a client’s 0800 laboratory values at 1100. The nurse notes that the client received heparin at 1100. Which of the following laboratory values warrants an incident report?

A. Serum potassium of 3.9 mmol/L

B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) exceeding therapeutic range

C. Serum sodium of 135 mmol/L

D. White blood cell count of 9,000/mm³

Answer: B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) exceeding therapeutic range

Explanation: Heparin is an anticoagulant that prolongs the clotting time. An aPTT exceeding the therapeutic range indicates over-anticoagulation, putting the client at risk of excessive bleeding. This warrants immediate reporting and adjustment of the heparin dose.

Question 2:

A nurse is caring for a client who develops an anaphylactic reaction to IV antibiotic administration. After assessing the client’s respiratory status and stopping the medication infusion, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

A. Administer oxygen

B. Administer epinephrine

C. Call the provider

D. Start an IV infusion of normal saline

Answer: B. Administer epinephrine

Explanation: Epinephrine is essential in treating anaphylaxis because it quickly counteracts airway constriction, hypotension, and other severe symptoms. Administering it immediately helps restore normal breathing and stabilize circulation, preventing life-threatening complications.

Question 3:

A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin orally to a client. Identify the sequence of steps the nurse should take.

A. Prepare the medication

B. Verify the prescription

C. Document the administration

D. Check the client’s heart rate

E. Administer the dose

Answer: B. Verify the prescription → D. Check the client’s heart rate → A. Prepare the medication → E. Administer the dose → C. Document the administration

Explanation: Digoxin requires careful monitoring due to its narrow therapeutic index. Verifying the prescription ensures accuracy, checking the heart rate is essential to avoid bradycardia, preparing the medication ensures readiness, administering the dose safely delivers the treatment, and documenting completes the process responsibly.

Question 4:

A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who has erectile dysfunction and is requesting a prescription for sildenafil. The nurse should identify which of the following medications as a contraindication for receiving sildenafil?

A. Warfarin

B. Nitroglycerin

C. Metoprolol

D. Simvastatin

Answer: B. Nitroglycerin

Explanation: Sildenafil and nitroglycerin both act to lower blood pressure. When combined, they can cause a dramatic drop in blood pressure, leading to severe hypotension, dizziness, fainting, or even a life-threatening condition such as shock. This makes the combination contraindicated.

Question 5:

A nurse is caring for a client who has hyponatremia and is receiving an infusion of a prescribed hypertonic solution. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the treatment is effective?

A. Decreased urinary output

B. Improved cognition

C. Decreased heart rate

D. Increased thirst

Answer: B. Improved cognition

Explanation: Hyponatremia impacts neurological function, leading to symptoms like confusion or altered mental status. Improved cognition indicates that sodium levels are stabilizing, reflecting the effectiveness of the hypertonic solution therapy.

Question 6:

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who received a dose of sodium polystyrene sulfonate. Which of the following findings should a nurse identify as an indication that the medication has been effective?

A. Decreased serum potassium levels

B. Increased serum calcium levels

C. Decreased serum sodium levels

D. Increased urinary output

Answer: A. Decreased serum potassium levels

Explanation: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate treats hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines. A decrease in serum potassium levels indicates the medication’s effectiveness in removing excess potassium from the body.

Question 7:

A nurse is administering naloxone to a client who has developed an adverse reaction to morphine. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a therapeutic effect of naloxone?

A. Increased heart rate

B. Improved respiratory rate

C. Decreased pain levels

D. Reduced nausea

Answer: B. Improved respiratory rate

Explanation: Naloxone works by blocking opioid receptors to reverse the effects of morphine, particularly respiratory depression. Its therapeutic effect is shown through improved breathing patterns. Monitoring is crucial due to naloxone’s short duration compared to opioids.

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Question 8:

A nurse is teaching a client about the side effects of chemotherapy. Which of the following should the nurse identify as the most concerning adverse effect?

A. Nausea and vomiting

B. Fatigue

C. Neutropenia

D. Hair loss

Answer: C. Neutropenia

Explanation: Neutropenia significantly reduces white blood cell counts, compromising the immune system and increasing the risk of life-threatening infections. This makes it the most concerning adverse effect of chemotherapy.

Question 9:

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client prescribed lithium. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

A. “I will maintain a consistent salt intake.”

B. “I will avoid dehydration.”

C. “I will limit my caffeine intake.”

D. “I can double my dose if I miss one.”

Answer: D. “I can double my dose if I miss one.”

Explanation: Doubling a missed lithium dose increases the risk of toxicity, which can cause serious side effects such as tremors, confusion, or kidney damage. This statement highlights the need for further client education to ensure safe medication practices.

Question 10:

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking isoniazid for tuberculosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

A. Peripheral neuropathy

B. Hypertension

C. Constipation

D. Bradycardia

Answer: A. Peripheral neuropathy

Explanation: Isoniazid interferes with vitamin B6 absorption, which is essential for nerve function. This deficiency can result in peripheral neuropathy, characterized by tingling, numbness, or pain in the extremities.

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2021 ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam: Sample Questions and Answers

Sample Question 1:

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

A. Platelet count

B. Prothrombin time (PT)

C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

D. Bleeding time

Answer: B. Prothrombin time (PT)

Rationale: Warfarin works by inhibiting clotting factors dependent on vitamin K, which prolongs the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring Prothrombin Time (PT) ensures the medication’s effectiveness and helps adjust the dosage to maintain a therapeutic range, preventing complications like excessive bleeding or clot formation.

Sample Question 2:

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A. Take the medication with food.

B. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.

C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.

D. Crush the medication if swallowing is difficult.

Answer: C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.

Rationale: Alendronate can cause significant irritation to the esophagus if not taken correctly. Drinking a full glass of water ensures the tablet is promptly delivered to the stomach. Remaining upright for at least 30 minutes after taking it reduces the risk of esophageal damage and optimizes absorption.

Sample Question 3:

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for propranolol. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for this medication?

A. Hypertension

B. Asthma

C. Tachycardia

D. Migraine headaches

Answer: B. Asthma

Rationale: Propranolol blocks beta-2 receptors in the lungs, leading to bronchoconstriction, which can exacerbate asthma symptoms. This action makes it unsuitable for individuals with asthma, as it can compromise respiratory function and trigger severe complications.

Sample Question 4:

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

A. Hyperkalemia

B. Hypotension

C. Bradycardia

D. Hypernatremia

Answer: B. Hypotension

Rationale: Furosemide promotes diuresis, which may lead to significant fluid and electrolyte depletion. This fluid loss can result in decreased blood pressure, manifesting as hypotension, particularly in clients who are volume-depleted or dehydrated. Monitoring blood pressure and hydration status is essential during therapy.

Sample Question 5:

A nurse is teaching a client about the adverse effects of prednisone. Which of the following findings should the nurse include?

A. Weight loss

B. Hypoglycemia

C. Increased risk of infection

D. Hyperkalemia

Answer: C. Increased risk of infection

Rationale: Prednisone suppresses the normal immune response, reducing the body’s ability to fight off pathogens. This places the client at an increased risk of infections, which is a critical adverse effect to monitor closely during treatment.

Sample Question 6:

A nurse is preparing to administer insulin glargine to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Shake the vial gently before drawing up the medication.

B. Administer the insulin at mealtime.

C. Mix the insulin with regular insulin in the same syringe.

D. Administer the insulin subcutaneously.

Answer: D. Administer the insulin subcutaneously.

Rationale: Insulin glargine is designed for slow, steady absorption and is administered subcutaneously to achieve its long-acting effect. It should never be mixed with other insulins, as this can alter its action and effectiveness. Proper administration ensures consistent blood sugar control.

Sample Question 7:

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of digoxin toxicity?

A. Hypertension

B. Blurred vision

C. Increased appetite

D. Tachycardia

Answer: B. Blurred vision

Rationale: Digoxin toxicity occurs when serum digoxin levels exceed the therapeutic range, affecting vision and causing symptoms such as blurred vision or yellow halos. It also disrupts cardiac rhythms, leading to arrhythmias, and may induce gastrointestinal discomfort like nausea. Recognizing these signs is crucial for prompt intervention.

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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam Final Word

Preparing for the ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2021 doesn’t have to be overwhelming. With the right resources and a clear study plan, you can tackle the exam confidently. Remember, understanding the rationale behind each answer is key to mastering pharmacology concepts.

At Ulosca, we’re committed to supporting your journey. Whether it’s through study guides, practice questions, or expert tips, we’re here to help you succeed. You’ve got this!