Alright, future nurses, it’s time to get amped for the ATI Med Surg Proctored Exam! We know it can feel like a mountain to climb, but trust us, with the right prep, you’re going to crush it. This exam is all about testing your clinical decision-making and your ability to provide safe, effective care—skills you’ll use every day as a nurse. Get ready to flex those brain muscles!
With the right resources, like the test banks available at Ulosca.com, you’ll know exactly what kind of questions to expect. It’s all about practicing and perfecting your approach so that when exam day comes, you feel like you’re walking into a marathon you’ve already trained for.
Let’s jump into some sample questions and get you one step closer to that shiny, new RN badge!
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ATI Med Surg Proctored Exam Questions & Answers
Question 1:
A nurse is providing education to a client who is to undergo an EEG the next day. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A.”Do not wash your hair the morning of the procedure.”
B. “Try and stay awake most of the night prior to the procedure.”
C. “The procedure will take approximately 15 minutes.”
D. “You will need to lie flat for 4 hours after the procedure.”
Answer: A. “Do not wash your hair the morning of the procedure.”
Explanation: Washing hair removes oils that help the electrodes stick to the scalp during the EEG. It’s important that the scalp is clean but not freshly washed.
Why the other answers are incorrect:
- B. “Try and stay awake most of the night prior to the procedure.” This is not necessary for the EEG. Staying awake the night before may actually make it harder for the client to relax during the procedure.
- C. “The procedure will take approximately 15 minutes.” An EEG typically takes 30–60 minutes, depending on the type of test being performed.
- D. “You will need to lie flat for 4 hours after the procedure.” There is no need for the client to lie flat after an EEG, making this instruction incorrect.
Question 2:
A nurse is caring for a client during the first 72 hours following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Turn the client’s head to the side with the head of the bed elevated 60°
B. Place the head of the bed flat with pillows under the client’s neck and feet
C. Elevate the head of the bed 25° to 30° with the client in a neutral midline position
D. Position the client in a dorsal recumbent position with pillows under the head and knees
Answer: C. Elevate the head of the bed 25° to 30° with the client in a neutral midline position
Explanation: Elevating the head of the bed at a 25° to 30° angle promotes venous drainage and reduces intracranial pressure while keeping the client in a neutral position to prevent further neurological deficits.
Why the other answers are incorrect:
- A. Turn the client’s head to the side with the head of the bed elevated 60° This angle could increase intracranial pressure and may compromise breathing.
- B. Place the head of the bed flat with pillows under the client’s neck and feet A flat head position can increase the risk of aspiration and impair venous drainage.
- D. Position the client in a dorsal recumbent position with pillows under the head and knees This positioning does not adequately support optimal cerebral perfusion and can increase pressure on the head and neck.
Question 3:
A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection for a client. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a potential contraindication to administering the medication via the IM route?
A. The medication is a depot preparation.
B. The client is taking an anticoagulant.
C. The medication is a particulate suspension.
D. The client has been vomiting.
Answer: B. The client is taking an anticoagulant.
Explanation: Administering an IM injection to a client on anticoagulants increases the risk of bleeding and hematoma formation at the injection site. A subcutaneous injection may be a safer alternative.
Why the other answers are incorrect:
- A. The medication is a depot preparation. Depot preparations are designed to be administered via IM injection for slow release, so this would not be a contraindication.
- C. The medication is a particulate suspension. Particulate suspensions are often given IM, and this does not contraindicate the route.
- D. The client has been vomiting. Vomiting does not directly contraindicate the IM route, though the client’s hydration and condition should be assessed.
Question 4:
A nurse is assessing a client who sustained superficial partial-thickness and deep partial-thickness burns 72 hours ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Edema in the burned extremities
B. Severe pain at the burn sites
C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
D. Temperature of 39.1°C (102.4°F)
Answer: D. Temperature of 39.1°C (102.4°F)
Explanation: A temperature above 38°C (100.4°F) indicates a possible infection, which is common in burn victims due to their compromised skin barrier.
Why the other answers are incorrect:
- A. Edema in the burned extremities Some edema is expected in the initial phase of burn recovery and can be managed with fluid replacement.
- B. Severe pain at the burn sites Pain is common during the first 72 hours as tissue healing begins. However, it should be assessed regularly.
- C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr While this is lower than ideal, it is not immediately concerning unless it drops further. Fluid resuscitation often addresses early issues with urine output.
Question 5:
A nurse is caring for a client who has manifestations of acute tubular necrosis (ATN) following a kidney transplantation. Which of the following interventions should the nurse anticipate for this client? (Select all that apply.)
A. Hemodialysis
B. Biopsy
C. Immunosuppression
D. Balloon angioplasty
E. Surgical repair
Answer: A. Hemodialysis, B. Biopsy, C. Immunosuppression
Explanation: Hemodialysis is needed to manage renal failure in ATN, and a biopsy helps determine the cause. Immunosuppression is required to prevent rejection after a kidney transplant.
Why the other answers are incorrect:
- D. Balloon angioplasty is typically used for vascular issues like blockages, not for ATN.
- E. Surgical repair is not a treatment for ATN; the focus is on managing kidney function and preventing further damage.
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ATI Med Surg Proctored Exam: Sample Questions & Answers
Sample Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure safe oxygen administration?
A. Set the oxygen flow rate to 10 L/min
B. Use a humidifier with the oxygen delivery system
C. Apply a nasal cannula with a flow rate of 6 L/min
D. Encourage the client to breathe through the mouth
Answer: B. Use a humidifier with the oxygen delivery system
Explanation: Humidification helps prevent drying of the mucous membranes, which is especially important for clients receiving long-term oxygen therapy.
Why the other answers are incorrect:
- A. Set the oxygen flow rate to 10 L/min Setting a flow rate that high could cause discomfort and potentially lead to oxygen toxicity, especially in COPD patients.
- C. Apply a nasal cannula with a flow rate of 6 L/min A flow rate of 6 L/min is quite high for a nasal cannula and could cause irritation or drying of the nasal passages.
- D. Encouraging the client to breathe through the mouth Breathing through the nose helps filter and humidify the air, so it’s not ideal to encourage mouth breathing.
Sample Question 2
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a lumbar puncture and reports a throbbing headache when sitting upright. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Use the Glasgow Coma Scale to assess the client
B. Assist the client into a supine position
C. Administer an opioid analgesic
D. Encourage the client to increase oral fluid intake
Answer: B. Assist the client into a supine position
Explanation: A throbbing headache after a lumbar puncture is often due to a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. Assisting the client into a supine position helps alleviate the headache by promoting CSF pressure restoration.
Why the other answers are incorrect:
- A. Use the Glasgow Coma Scale to assess the client The Glasgow Coma Scale is useful for assessing consciousness and neurological function, but it doesn’t address the headache caused by the CSF leak.
- C. Administer an opioid analgesic While opioids can help with pain relief, the priority is to relieve the underlying issue of CSF leak, not just mask the pain.
- D. Encouraging the client to increase oral fluid intake Fluid intake may help with CSF restoration, but changing position is more immediately effective for relieving the headache.
Sample Question 3
A nurse is monitoring the ECG of a client who has hypocalcemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Flattened T waves
B. Prolonged QT interval
C. Shortened QT intervals
D. Widened QRS complexes
Answer: B. Prolonged QT intervals
Explanation: Hypocalcemia prolongs the QT interval on an ECG, which can lead to arrhythmias.
Why the other answers are incorrect:
- Flattened T waves Flattened T waves can be seen in hypokalemia, not hypocalcemia
- C. Shortened QT intervals Shortened QT intervals are typically seen with hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia.
- D. Widened QRS complexes A widened QRS complex is typically associated with conditions like hyperkalemia or bundle branch blocks, not hypocalcemia.
Sample Question 4
A nurse is preparing an in-service program about the stages of acute kidney injury. Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include about prerenal azotemia?
A. Prerenal azotemia begins prior to the onset of symptoms
B. Interference with renal perfusion causes renal azotemia
C. Prerenal azotemia is irreversible, even in early stages
D. Infections and tumors cause prerenal azotemia
Answer: B. Interference with renal perfusion causes renal azotemia
Explanation: Prerenal azotemia is caused by a decrease in renal perfusion, which reduces kidney function. This can be reversed if the cause is addressed promptly.
Why the other answers are incorrect:
- A. Prerenal azotemia begins prior to the onset of symptoms This is incorrect. Symptoms like oliguria and elevated BUN and creatinine levels appear as the condition worsens.
- C. Prerenal azotemia is irreversible, even in early stages If treated early, prerenal azotemia is reversible.
- D. Infections and tumors cause prerenal azotemia Infections and tumors typically cause postrenal or intrinsic azotemia, not prerenal.
Sample Question 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a fractured left femur and is in skeletal traction. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Ecchymosis of the thigh
B. Serous drainage at the pin site
C. Chest petechiae
D. Muscle spasms in the left leg
Answer: C. Chest petechiae
Explanation: Chest petechiae may indicate a fat embolism, a serious and potentially life-threatening complication. Immediate reporting is required.
Why the other answers are incorrect:
- A. Ecchymosis of the thigh This is a common finding in a fractured limb, particularly if there’s trauma to the area.
- B. Serious drainage at the pin site This is expected, but if the drainage becomes purulent or increases in volume, it may indicate an infection.
- D. Muscle spasms in the left leg Muscle spasms are common with fractures and skeletal traction, though they should be monitored for severity.
ATI Med Surg Proctored Exam: Final Word
As you work through these practice questions, it’s essential to focus on not only getting the answers right but also understanding why the incorrect options are wrong.
This approach will sharpen your clinical reasoning skills, which is key to success in the ATI Med Surg Proctored Exam. Ulosca.com is here to support you with study resources that guide you through the material in an engaging and easy-to-understand way.
Keep practicing, stay focused, and remember that each question is a step closer to success. You’re well on your way to passing the exam and becoming the competent, confident nurse you aim to be. Good luck—you’ve got this!