ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2020

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ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2020 Questions & Answers

Question 1: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following tubal ligation. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A. Ovulation will remain the same
B. Hormone replacement will be needed following the procedure
C. My monthly cycle will be shorter
D. Ovulation remains the same

Answer: A. Ovulation will remain the same
Explanation: After tubal ligation, ovulation continues to occur normally. However, the eggs are no longer able to meet sperm, which prevents pregnancy. The procedure only affects the ability of the eggs to travel down the fallopian tubes.

Question 2: A nurse is assessing a newborn who is born via forceps-assisted birth. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as injury caused by forceps?

A. Facial asymmetry
B. Depressed anterior fontanel
C. Uneven gluteal skin folds
D. Epicanthal folds

Answer: A. Facial asymmetry
Explanation: Forceps-assisted births can lead to facial injuries, such as asymmetry or bruising, as the forceps may compress the newborn’s face during delivery. This type of injury usually resolves within a few days after birth.

Question 3: A nurse is assessing a newborn following a forceps-assisted birth. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse identify as a complication of the birth method?

A. Hypoglycemia
B. Polycythemia
C. Facial Palsy
D. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

Answer: C. Facial Palsy
Explanation: Facial palsy, or weakness on one side of the face, is a potential complication following the use of forceps during delivery. The pressure applied to the newborn’s face during delivery can result in temporary or permanent facial nerve damage.

Question 4: A nurse is assessing a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has mild gestational hypertension. What finding should the nurse identify as the priority?

A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
B. Mild edema in the lower extremities
C. Proteinuria 1+
D. Headache and visual disturbances

Answer: D. Headache and visual disturbances
Explanation: Headache and visual disturbances are symptoms that suggest the progression of gestational hypertension to preeclampsia, which is a more severe form of hypertension during pregnancy. These symptoms indicate that the nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Question 5: A nurse is caring for a client who is in the latent phase of labor and is receiving oxytocin via continuous IV infusion. The nurse notes that the client is having contractions every 2 minutes, lasting 100-110 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is reassuring. What action should the nurse take?

A. Increase the oxytocin infusion rate.
B. Assess the client’s vital signs.
C. Stop the oxytocin infusion immediately.
D. Continue to monitor the client and fetus.

Answer: D. Continue to monitor the client and fetus.
Explanation: In the latent phase of labor, contractions every 2 minutes and lasting 100-110 seconds are common, and a reassuring fetal heart rate suggests that the baby is tolerating labor well. Continuous monitoring should be maintained, but there’s no need to adjust the oxytocin infusion at this time.

Question 6: A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks gestation and is undergoing a nonstress test. The FHR is 130 without accelerations for the past 10 minutes. What action should the nurse take?

A. Notify the healthcare provider of the results.
B. Continue the test for an additional 10-20 minutes.
C. Reposition the client to improve FHR.
D. Perform a biophysical profile.

Answer: B. Continue the test for an additional 10-20 minutes.
Explanation: A nonreactive nonstress test, where no accelerations are observed within 20 minutes, typically leads to further monitoring. Extending the test is a common approach to ensure that the fetus is not under any distress.

Question 7: A nurse is reviewing lab results for a client who is at 37 weeks gestation. The nurse notes that the patient is rubella non-immune, positive for group A beta-hemolytic strep, and has a blood type O negative. What action should the nurse take?

A. Administer rubella vaccine immediately after delivery.
B. Start antibiotics for the group A beta-hemolytic strep infection.
C. Administer Rh immunoglobulin after delivery.
D. Notify the healthcare provider about the non-immune rubella status.

Answer: A. Administer rubella vaccine immediately after delivery.
Explanation: Rubella vaccination is contraindicated during pregnancy, but it can be administered postpartum, after delivery. The nurse should plan to administer the rubella vaccine to the client after delivery to provide immunity.

Question 8: A nurse is teaching a client who has pre-eclampsia and is to receive magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion about expected adverse effects. What adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. Hypertension
B. Shortness of breath
C. Deep tendon reflexes 3+
D. Flushing and sweating

Answer: D. Flushing and sweating
Explanation: Flushing and sweating are common side effects of magnesium sulfate therapy. The nurse should inform the client that these effects are expected but that they should report any other symptoms, such as difficulty breathing or changes in reflexes.

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2020 ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam: Sample Questions & Answers

Sample Question 1

A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who has a diagnosis of uterine atony. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?

A. Oxytocin
B. Methylergonovine
C. Misoprostol
D. Terbutaline

Answer: A. Oxytocin
Explanation: Oxytocin is the first-line medication used to treat uterine atony, as it stimulates uterine contractions and helps reduce postpartum hemorrhage.

Sample Question 2

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following interventions should the nurse anticipate?

A. Administering magnesium sulfate
B. Initiating oxytocin infusion
C. Preparing for immediate cesarean delivery
D. Discharging the client with bed rest instructions

Answer: A. Administering magnesium sulfate
Explanation: Magnesium sulfate is commonly administered to clients experiencing preterm labor to inhibit uterine contractions and provide neuroprotection for the fetus.

Sample Question 3

A nurse is assessing a newborn 12 hours after birth. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

A. Acrocyanosis
B. Jaundice
C. Hypothermia
D. Positive Moro reflex

Answer: B. Jaundice
Explanation: Jaundice within the first 24 hours after birth may indicate pathological causes such as hemolytic disease or infection and should be reported to the provider.

Sample Question 4

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a cesarean delivery. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A. “I can resume driving in 2 weeks.”
B. “I should avoid lifting anything heavier than 10 pounds for 6 weeks.”
C. “I can take a tub bath in 2 days.”
D. “I should remove the steri-strips from my incision after 1 week.”

Answer: B. “I should avoid lifting anything heavier than 10 pounds for 6 weeks.”
Explanation: Clients recovering from a cesarean delivery should avoid heavy lifting to prevent strain on the incision site and promote healing.

Sample Question 5

A nurse is performing a vaginal examination on a client who is in labor and observes the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. After calling for assistance, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

A. Apply internal upward pressure to the presenting part using two gloved fingers.
B. Place the client in a supine position with a wedge under her hip.
C. Prepare the client for an immediate cesarean delivery.
D. Attempt to push the cord back into the vagina.

Answer: A. Apply internal upward pressure to the presenting part using two gloved fingers.
Explanation: Prolapsed umbilical cord is an obstetric emergency. Applying upward pressure to the presenting part relieves pressure on the cord, improving blood flow to the fetus until delivery can occur.

Sample Question 6

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 40 weeks of gestation and has a new prescription for misoprostol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. “I can administer oxytocin 4 hours after the insertion of the medication.”
B. “You will need a full bladder prior to the insertion of the medication.”
C. “Remain in a side-lying position for 15 minutes after the medication is inserted.”
D. “An antacid will be given 20 minutes prior to the insertion of the medication.”

Answer: A. “I can administer oxytocin 4 hours after the insertion of the medication.”
Explanation: Misoprostol is used for cervical ripening, and oxytocin can be administered after a certain interval to augment labor if necessary.

Sample Question 7

A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has a new prescription for combined oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as an adverse effect of this medication?

A. Depression
B. Polyuria
C. Hypotension
D. Urticaria

Answer: A. Depression
Explanation: Depression is a known side effect of combined oral contraceptives. Other potential side effects include nausea, weight gain, and breakthrough bleeding.

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Sample Question 8

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 22 weeks of gestation and is HIV positive. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Administer penicillin G 2.4 million units IM to the client.
B. Instruct the client to schedule an annual pelvic examination.
C. Tell the client she will start medication for HIV immediately after delivery.
D. Report the client’s condition to the local health department.

Answer: D. Report the client’s condition to the local health department.
Explanation: HIV is a nationally notifiable condition, and healthcare providers are required to report it to public health authorities to ensure appropriate follow-up and care.

Sample Question 9

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 11 weeks of gestation and reports frequent vomiting. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client has hyperemesis gravidarum?

A. Ketonuria
B. Weight gain
C. Decreased blood pressure
D. Increased appetite

Answer: A. Ketonuria
Explanation: Ketonuria is a sign of hyperemesis gravidarum, indicating that the body is breaking down fat for energy due to inadequate nutrition and hydration.

Sample Question 10

A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who is pregnant and has polyhydramnios. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

A. Feeling of warmth
B. Increased fetal movement
C. Sudden increase in fundal height
D. Decreased fetal heart rate

Answer: C. Sudden increase in fundal height
Explanation: A sudden increase in fundal height may indicate polyhydramnios, which can lead to complications such as preterm labor or placental abruption. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation.

ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2020 Final Word

The ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam is essential for assessing your ability to provide safe and competent care to mothers and newborns. By reviewing these sample questions and understanding the reasoning behind the correct answers, you’ll feel more confident and ready to tackle the exam.

Remember, preparation is key, and Ulosca.com is here to guide you every step of the way. With access to practice exams, expert explanations, and helpful study tips, you’ll be well-equipped to succeed. Stay focused, trust the process, and you’ll be ready to ace the ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam!